What was Jesus' intended scope when he said this?
Was it more towards the people he was preaching?
Was he aware of other religions in the far East and would he say this to them?
How about all the people who died before he was alive?
Ah, yes. This is what Harold Kushner once described as "The problem of peculiarity," the fact that Jesus appeared in this particular time of history, but at no other time.
It is worth noting that the phrase, "No one comes to the Father except through me" is a single phrase lifted out of an entire chapter of the Bible where Jesus speaks to his disciples about their relationship to God, and how Jesus provides a model for that relationship. As with all phrases lifted out of the Bible in isolation, it is helpful to study and understand the surrounding text:
Most Christians look at the phrase, "No one comes to the father except through me," and interpret that as a mandate. But according to this Biblical passage, God and Jesus are one and the same. So if you believe in Jesus, you must also believe in God, and vice versa.
I like to think that what Jesus really meant was: "Live the kind of life I have lived (according to my spiritual principles), and you will have the same rewards in Heaven that I do."
He meant through a state of Christ Consciousness. All of his teaching are symbolic, not literal. Take if from an Ordained Minister. I may not make a living as a minister, But I have studied it well. Blessings Tom, or Reverend Tom
answered 15 Dec '10, 00:12
Christ Consciousness is what it means to me. Thanks Tom.
answered 15 Dec '10, 06:02
the christos ignites self consciouness, complementary to his primary ray,
answered 15 Dec '10, 00:40
The quest is always inward, i.e. InwardQuest. Even when a question only touches the surface it's root is always planted deeper within it's earth. Remember, the Messiah was given His title for what He held within Him and the flesh He was wrapped in is just as honorary as the inward-man. This is why the Messiah is known for having resurrected and ascended into heaven.
answered 11 Jan '11, 19:11
Bringing this into non religious language ... the prophet jesus would correspond to our own personal subconscious ... and father would correspond to the collective consciousness.
In metaphysical terms it means that it is through thought that we gain indirect access to cosmic consciousness
i am is the answer.I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me. If you really know me, you will know my Father as well." he was example is i am as experience both nature men and the divine. so in that way if you know him you know the father. did he not say he was doing the work of the father?
John 5:16 So, because Jesus was doing these things on the Sabbath, the Jews persecuted him.
John 5:18 For this reason the Jews tried all the harder to kill him; not only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was even calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God.
John 10:36 what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, 'I am God's Son'?
1 Thessalonians 2:13 And we also thank God continually because, when you received the word of God, which you heard from us, you accepted it not as the word of men, but as it actually is, the word of God, which is at work in you who believe
Our father is Abraham!" they declared. "No," Jesus replied, "for if you were really the children of Abraham, you would follow his example
John 14:12 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me, the works that I do shall he do also; and greater works than these shall he do; because I go unto my Father.
Acts 26:18 To open their eyes, [and] to turn [them] from darkness to light, and [from] the power of Satan unto God, that they may receive forgiveness of sins, and inheritance among them which are sanctified by faith that is in me.
1Corinthians 12:4 Now there are diversities of gifts, but the same Spirit.
1Corinthians 12:5 And there are diversities of ministrations, and the same Lord.
1Corinthians 12:6 And there are diversities of workings, but the same God, who worketh all things in all.
1Corinthians 12:7 But to each one is given the manifestation of the Spirit to profit withal.
1Corinthians 12:8 For to one is given through the Spirit the word of wisdom; and to another the word of knowledge, according to the same Spirit:
1Corinthians 12:9 to another faith, in the same Spirit; and to another gifts of healings, in the one Spirit;
1Corinthians 12:10 and to another workings of miracles; and to another prophecy; and to another discernings of spirits; to another divers kinds of tongues; and to another the interpretation of tongues:
1Corinthians 12:11 but all these worketh the one and the same Spirit, dividing to each one severally even as he will.
if someone show you something or some way of being and you go show other people will they not know him through you?If you really know me, you will know my Father as well.
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=S7nUTJehvfI i am the example that you must follow,i gave you the teaching and the example,i shared living water and light with you,to guide you so that you can find your own living water and light in you. no darkness comes to the kingdom and to the father,so let there be light,Be the light that you can be,experience and enjoy.
for those who have eyes to see and ears to hear: http://www.youtube.com/watch?NR=1&v=h8h1cauOz3w&feature=endscreen
‘Jesus saith unto him, I am THE WAY, THE TRUTH, and THE LIFE: no man cometh unto the Father, but by ME.’ [John 14:6, Authorized King James 1611 Bible]
(1) What was Jesus' intended scope when he said this?
[A] The Context
This declaration was made by Jesus Christ to His apostles during the events of the Last Supper. At the time of this declaration, Satan had already entered Judas Iscariot, and Judas Iscariot had already departed into the night to arrange for the betrayal [John 13:26-30]. Although Jesus Christ’s declaration was a direct answer to Thomas’ question [John 14:5], the clause ‘no man cometh unto the Father, but by ME’ is a global declaration which applies to every single person.
[B] The Doctrine
Jesus Christ is confirming His uncontested spiritual authority, exclusivity, and power pertaining to His MEDIATORSHIP. This is very important to observe and understand since Jesus Christ must be in full possession of all spiritual authority, exclusivity, and power when fulfilling His duties as MEDIATOR. According to the Scriptures, Jesus Christ is the ONLY person in history who can successfully occupy the office of MEDIATOR, and it is GOD Himself who has established this MANDATE:
‘For there is ONE GOD, and ONE MEDIATOR between GOD and men, the man Christ Jesus; who gave himself a RANSOM FOR ALL, to be testified in due time.’ [I Timothy 2:5,6]
By law, a ‘mediator’ is a person that interposes or intervenes between two parties that are at variance with each other for the purpose of reconciling them. The two parties at variance with each other are: GOD and mankind. In GOD’s courtroom, Jesus Christ is the mediator BY NATURE (since He was both divine and human) and BY OFFICE (since He is seated at the right hand of GOD transacting spiritual matters between GOD and men).
Now, why is a MEDIATOR needed between GOD and mankind?
ANSWER: Because of men’s SINS!
And, on what merit did Jesus Christ obtain His office as MEDIATOR?
ANSWER: Because of His PERFECT and SINLESS blood-atonement at Calvary!
In summary, according to the Scriptures:
The ONLY ‘way’ is JESUS CHRIST. ( Absolute EXCLUSIVITY!)
The ONLY ‘truth’ is JESUS CHRIST. ( Absolute AUTHORITY!)
The ONLY ‘life’ is JESUS CHRIST. (Absolute POWER!)
The ONLY ‘mediator’ is JESUS CHRIST. (Absolute MEDIATORSHIP!)
If Jesus Christ is not ‘THE WAY’, ‘THE TRUTH’, and ‘THE LIFE’, then there would be no possible way for Him to fulfill all the duties of MEDIATOR between GOD and mankind. Obviously, if there is another ‘WAY’, another ‘TRUTH’, and another ‘LIFE’, then there should also be another MEDIATOR. However, since the Scriptures remain consistent and clearly state that there exists NO OTHER MEDIATOR except Jesus Christ, then there exists no other ‘WAY’, no other ‘TRUTH’, and no other ‘LIFE’ other than Jesus Christ.
Therefore, mankind must heed GOD’s mandate: In relation to SIN, if you wish to represent yourself or claim to have another ‘mediator’ other than Jesus Christ in GOD’s judicial court, then you will LOSE your trial. I strongly and humbly urge you not to play spiritual games with the eternity of your soul. Satan is your prosecutor. Therefore, you must choose to be BORN-AGAIN so that you can have the ONLY defense attorney capable of eternally saving your soul against Satan’s accusations: JESUS CHRIST!
‘Neither is there SALVATION in any other: for there is NONE other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be SAVED.’ [Acts 4:12]
(2) Was it more towards the people he was preaching?
No. The doctrinal truth of Jesus Christ’s MEDIATORSHIP was not only for His apostles. The apostles were expressly commanded to go forward and teach Jesus Christ’s doctrine to ALL NATIONS [Matthew 28:19,20][Luke 24:46-48]. You will notice again that Jesus Christ also confirmed that ‘NO MAN cometh unto the Father, but by ME!’ This is a clear global statement which incorporates all of mankind (male, female, young, old, any skin color, any nationality, etc).
(3) Was he aware of other religions in the far East and would he say this to them?
Yes. Jesus Christ was indeed aware of the Gentile nations, and He commanded the apostles to stay clear of them since He had first come for the lost house of Israel [Matthew 10:5,6]. Also, at the start of His ministry, Satan tried to tempt Jesus Christ by showing Him all the kingdoms of the world and all their glory [Matthew 4:8-10]. Because Jesus Christ gave Himself a ‘RANSOM FOR ALL’, then He would absolutely declare the words of [John 14:6] to ALL Eastern and Far Eastern nations. The Scriptures declare that ‘GOD so loved THE WORLD that He gave His only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in Him should not perish, but have EVERLASTING LIFE.’ [John 3:16]
(4) How about all the people who died before he was alive?
Before Jesus Christ shed His blood on Calvary’s cross to inaugurate the beginning of the New Testament, mankind had the knowledge of GOD through the Old Testament Law. Before the Old Testament Law was in effect through Moses at Mount Sinai, mankind had the knowledge of GOD through the words of the historical Patriarchs and their generations (Adam – Seth – Enos – Cainan – Mahalaleel – Jared - Enoch – Methuselah – Lamech – Noah – Shem – Arphaxad – Salah – Eber – Peleg – Reu – Serug – Nahor – Terah – Abram[who became Abraham] – Isaac – Jacob[who became Israel] – Jacob’s 12 sons[who became the nation of Israel] – Moses[who received the Law at Mount Sinai]).
Historically, if any man was TRULY and HONESTLY searching for GOD, then GOD always had a way for that man to find Him. Remember Job?? This truth has never changed. Today, any man can find GOD through the BLOOD-ATONEMENT of Jesus Christ (THE ONLY MEDIATOR).
Although GOD’s Prophetic Time-Line has certainly progressed during the last 6000 years, GOD’s moral perfection has NOT changed. Therefore, wherever and whenever a man is born, the following  statements have always remained TRUE:
Throughout the course of history, these  statements have always been Biblically TRUE as the foundation of a man’s relationship with GOD.
Thanks for reading.
There are comments within this particular forum which are doctrinally INCORRECT!
Thus, I will conclude with the following friendly words of caution:
(1) Jesus Christ NEVER tells anybody to ‘try to live your life according to my spiritual principles’ in order to be saved. If your OWN efforts can save you, then why did Jesus Christ have to shed His blood on the cross?? What is the purpose of His MEDIATORSHIP?? The Scriptures clearly show that by WORKS shall no flesh be justified [Galatians 2:16]. Also, man will NEVER obtain ‘the SAME rewards as Jesus Christ in Heaven’. Jesus Christ will always have the pre-eminence because He is the HEAD of the Body of Christ. Choosing to become BORN-AGAIN will give a man the privilege of being a MEMBER of His Body [Colossians 1:18][Romans 12:4-8].
(2) Just because Jesus Christ declared ‘I am’, ‘I and the Father are one’, or ‘he that hath seen Me hath seen the Father’ does NOT mean that every single person automatically(!?) has that SAME relationship with the Father that Jesus Christ (GOD in the Flesh) claimed for Himself. Again, if every man claims ‘I am’ or ‘I and the Father are one’, then why would mankind need Jesus Christ’s MEDIATORSHIP? Are you aware that, if a man declares that he is ‘GOD’, then that man is making a mockery of Jesus Christ’s MEDIATORSHIP. Why??
Observe the following:
Thus, a man is in serious doctrinal ERROR if he believes that he is ‘GOD’ or is ‘SINLESS’. According to the Scriptures, the ONLY way to have a personal relationship with God the Father is through the BLOOD-ATONEMENT of Jesus Christ (GOD in the Flesh) for the forgiveness of SINS. In other words, in order to have a personal relationship with GOD, you must first go through GOD’s MEDIATOR (Jesus Christ) and what He freely and lovingly did for YOU on the cross at Calvary. If a man wants to argue or discard the spiritual legalities of Jesus Christ’s MEDIATORSHIP, then GOD will harshly judge that man [Hebrews 10:26-31].
(3) In the Scriptures, there is no such thing as a man having a personal relationship with GOD without actually KNOWING that he has the relationship. To suggest this is utter NONSENSE! If a man has GOD’s Spirit in him, GOD would never remain hidden in that man’s life [Romans 8:16]. A man who has a personal relationship with GOD will KNOW that he indeed has it [I John 5:13] and also the MANNER in which the personal relationship was established [Romans 8:9; 10:9,10]. If this were not so, observe and consider the spiritual MESS which would result:
Now, who among you HONESTLY believes that all these different people have a personal relationship with the GOD of the Bible?? Do you not realize that the GOD of the Bible NEVER makes any of the spiritual claims listed above?? Thus, how can all these different people be linked to the SAME GOD?? Do you really think GOD is that stupid?? Or careless?? Or schizophrenic?? Obviously, the GOD of the Bible is NOT the same as the ‘gods’ of other belief systems. The GOD of the Bible KNOWS the people that belong to Him [II Timothy 2:19].
(4) Jesus Christ never called GOD the Father by strange names. In the Bible, GOD is NEVER addressed as ‘Source’, ‘All That Is’, ‘Higher Self’, or any other New Age term. One of the most bizarre New Age names ascribed to GOD is ‘The Universe’. How on earth can GOD’s name be ‘The Universe’ when the Bible clearly states that GOD CREATED(!) the Universe! If GOD is ‘The Universe’, then did GOD create Himself?? Obviously, the name of a ‘creation’ CANNOT be the name of its CREATOR! The Scriptures declare that the name of the CREATOR is above ALL the names in creation! [Psalms 148:13]
Also, there is NO such thing as a man’s inner ‘Christ-Consciousness’ in the Scriptures. As a SINNER, a man is NEVER commanded to look inward for his default ‘Christ-Consciousness’. How is it possible for a SINNER with a DEAD spirit to possess a ‘Christ-Consciousness’ [Romans 8:1,2]!? The claim that all men have an inner ‘Christ-Consciousness’ is an absolute insult to the MEDIATORSHIP of Jesus Christ. In the Bible, a man is commanded to acknowledge his SINS, confess them to GOD, and ask to be saved by the BLOOD-ATONEMENT of Jesus Christ (THE ONLY MEDIATOR!) in order to have the Spirit of Christ placed in him. Terms such as ‘Source’ and ‘Christ-Consciousness’ belong to Eastern religions, philosophies, mythologies, and the New Age Thought Movement. Any attempts to incorporate these ideas when studying the Bible will result in SPIRITUAL DISASTER. The Bible is a JEWISH book which fully INTERPRETS ITSELF. All non-Biblical terms and concepts are CONTRARY to sound Biblical doctrine.
answered 03 Feb '11, 16:39
It is an affirmation and self evident logic. It is connection to the Father through Christ within 'me.' Anyway one slices it, you read this verse, and you read it as 'me' as is intended, as is worded.
Slightly adding to it, for understanding purposes is that me equals you (in Christ). You desire the way, the truth and the life (with God), then affirm for own Self (Christ Self) the simple truth, no one (ever) comes unto the Father except through Me. Holy Spirit speaks through you (or to you) where you are at, and not to what's outside of you or around you. Jesus is symbolic (and great example) of Christ, but he is equal in Christ Love to you. He is us, and we are He, in spirit.
If you believe that you must go through Jesus to come unto (own) Father, Holy Spirit knows intent and honors desire, so ultimately words do not matter. But here online, or in our earthly ways of communicating, you may misguide brothers and sisters by putting symbol (even idol) of Jesus before the Christ in you. Come unto your Heavenly Father today, through You. God placed His Word in a place that it truly could never be lost unto you, though it could be denied if symbols and gods outside of you are deemed more worthy than Christ within.
answered 10 Jan '13, 00:34
John 14: 11 Jesus also said, “Believe me when I say that I am in the father and the father is in me; or at least believe on the evidence of the miracles themselves.”
So we cannot successfully argue the spiritual aspect of things since we do not understands how all of this work for us, but yet we have to go along with this with our own belief, or faith. To the people that died before the coming of Jesus, it would not have made a difference; why worry about something that did not happen in your time.
answered 21 Aug '11, 20:16
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